Theory of Income · Part I: Welfare Theorems · Lesson 2 of 25

Prices and Competitive Equilibrium

Covers Slides 1, pp. 10–13 · About 30 min · Prerequisite: Lesson 1
By the end you can:
  1. state the definition of a competitive equilibrium (CE) from memory, and say what each piece means;
  2. explain why only relative prices matter, and why one market clears automatically (Walras' law);
  3. compute a CE by hand in a two-good exchange economy and a one-firm production economy.
Primary source Alvarez, Slides 1, p. 12 (the definition). For a slower textbook treatment: Mas-Colell, Whinston & Green, Microeconomic Theory, §15.B (Edgeworth box) and §16.B (the general definition). The classic reference is Debreu, Theory of Value (1959), ch. 5.

1. Prices are a linear valuation of bundles

With \(m\) commodities, a price vector is \(p = (p_1,\dots,p_m)\). It turns any bundle \(x \in \mathbb{R}^m\) into a number, its value in units of account: $$p\cdot x \;=\; \sum_{s=1}^m p_s x_s .$$ Alvarez usually drops the dot and writes \(px\) S1 p.10. Two facts about this valuation get used in every proof in Part I:

Intuition: prices and commodities are "dual"

The commodity space decides what a price is. If commodities are dated, then \(p_t\) is the price today of a good delivered at \(t\), and \(p_{t+1}/p_t = 1/(1+r_t)\) is a gross interest rate. If commodities are state-contingent, \(p(z^t)\) is an Arrow–Debreu price for delivery after history \(z^t\). Whatever the space, the value of a bundle is always an inner product: \(\sum_t\sum_{z^t} p_t(z^t)x_t(z^t)\), or \(\int p(s)x(s)\,ds\) S1 p.11. Real wages, terms of trade, factor prices and interest rates are all ratios of entries of the same vector \(p\).

2. The definition

Definition: Competitive Equilibrium S1 p.12

A competitive equilibrium is a price vector \(p\in\mathbb{R}^m\) and an allocation \(\{\bar x^i,\bar y^j\}\) such that

  1. Firms maximize profits. For every \(j\in J\), $$\bar y^j \in \arg\max_{y\in Y^j}\; p\cdot y, \qquad \pi^j \equiv p\cdot \bar y^j .$$
  2. Households maximize utility subject to their budgets. For every \(i\in I\), $$\bar x^i \in \arg\max_{x\in X^i}\; u^i(x)\quad\text{s.t.}\quad p\cdot x \;\le\; p\cdot e^i + \sum_{j\in J}\theta^i_j\,\pi^j .$$
  3. The allocation is feasible (markets clear): \(\sum_i \bar x^i = \sum_j \bar y^j + \sum_i e^i\).

Read the budget constraint as uses of funds ≤ sources of funds. On the left is the value of net purchases. On the right are the value of the endowment, which the household can sell, plus its share of every firm's profits, which it owns via the \(\theta^i_j\).

Three things the definition does not say

3. Only relative prices matter

Multiply every price by \(\lambda>0\). Each firm's objective \(\lambda p\cdot y\) has the same maximizers, so \(\bar y^j\) is unchanged and \(\pi^j\) scales by \(\lambda\). Each household's budget set $$\{x: \lambda p\cdot x \le \lambda p\cdot e^i + \textstyle\sum_j\theta^i_j\lambda\pi^j\}$$ is identical to the original one. So if \((p,\bar x,\bar y)\) is a CE, then so is \((\lambda p,\bar x,\bar y)\). That is why we can always normalize one price (e.g. \(p_1 = 1\), or \(\sum_s p_s = 1\)): with \(m\) goods, there are only \(m-1\) prices to find.

4. Walras' law: one market clears for free

Walras' law

If every household's budget constraint binds, then for any prices \(p\) and any profit-maximizing and utility-maximizing plans, $$p\cdot\Big(\underbrace{\textstyle\sum_i x^i - \sum_j y^j - \sum_i e^i}_{\text{aggregate excess demand } z(p)}\Big) = 0 .$$ Hence if \(m-1\) markets clear and \(p_m\neq 0\), the \(m\)-th clears too.

Proof
  1. Binding budgets: \(p\cdot x^i = p\cdot e^i + \sum_j \theta^i_j\, p\cdot y^j\) for each \(i\).
  2. Sum over \(i\) and swap the order of summation: \(\sum_i p\cdot x^i = \sum_i p\cdot e^i + \sum_j \big(\sum_i\theta^i_j\big)\, p\cdot y^j\).
  3. Firms are fully owned by households, so \(\sum_i \theta^i_j = 1\) S1 p.5. Therefore \(p\cdot\big(\sum_i x^i - \sum_i e^i - \sum_j y^j\big) = 0\).
  4. If \(z_s(p) = 0\) for \(s=1,\dots,m-1\), the identity reads \(p_m z_m(p) = 0\), so \(z_m(p)=0\) whenever \(p_m\ne 0\).
∎

Why do budgets bind? Under local non-satiation (the key assumption of Lesson 3), a household with money left over could buy a slightly better bundle nearby. Notice that Walras' law used exactly the two ingredients that reappear in the First Welfare Theorem proof: binding budgets and \(\sum_i\theta^i_j=1\).

5. See it: the Edgeworth box

Two consumers, two goods, no firms, and a total endowment of one unit of each good. Consumer A's origin is bottom-left; consumer B's origin is top-right, so a point in the box is an allocation of both goods. Both have Cobb–Douglas utility, \(u^A = a\log x_1 + (1-a)\log x_2\) and \(u^B = b\log x_1 + (1-b)\log x_2\). Normalize \(p_2 = 1\) and let \(p\equiv p_1\).

Interactive. Drag the endowment point \(e\), or move the sliders. The black line is the budget line through \(e\) with slope \(-p\). The blue and orange dots are A's and B's utility-maximizing demands at that price, with their indifference curves. The dashed violet curve is the contract curve, where the two MRSs are equal. Try: set \(p\) too high and watch good 1 be in excess supply. Then press "Go to CE". In equilibrium, the two demands coincide and lie on the contract curve. That last fact is a preview of the First Welfare Theorem.

Worked example: solve the box by hand

Take endowments \(e^A = (e_1,e_2)\) and \(e^B=(1-e_1,1-e_2)\), with \(p_2=1\).

  1. Wealth. \(m^A = p e_1 + e_2\) and \(m^B = p(1-e_1) + (1-e_2)\).
  2. Demands. Cobb–Douglas spends a fixed share of wealth on each good: \(x_1^A = a m^A/p\) and \(x_1^B = b m^B/p\).
  3. Clear market 1. \(a m^A + b m^B = p\), i.e. \(a(pe_1+e_2) + b(p(1-e_1) + 1 - e_2) = p\). Solving, $$p^* = \frac{a e_2 + b(1-e_2)}{1 - a e_1 - b(1-e_1)} .$$
  4. Market 2 clears by Walras' law. There is no need to check it; the readout above confirms \(z_2=0\) whenever \(z_1=0\).

With the default values \(a=0.5\), \(b=0.3\), \(e=(0.8,0.2)\), this gives \(p^* = (0.1+0.24)/(1-0.4-0.06) = 0.34/0.54 \approx 0.63\).

6. Check your understanding

1. In a CE, what does a household take as given when it solves its problem?
  • Prices and the consumption of other households
  • Prices only; profits are chosen jointly with x
  • Prices and the profits paid out by the firms
  • Its utility level and the prices of the firms
The right-hand side of the budget, \(p\cdot e^i + \sum_j\theta^i_j\pi^j\), is a number to the household. It contains prices and profits, both evaluated at equilibrium. Other households' consumption does not enter household \(i\)'s problem at all; it would only matter with consumption externalities (Lesson 5).
2. Which pair of ingredients does the proof of Walras' law use?
  • Binding budgets and ownership shares summing to one
  • Convex preferences and convex production possibility sets
  • Strictly positive prices and continuous utility functions
  • Feasibility of the allocation and profit maximization only
Sum the binding budgets, then use \(\sum_i\theta^i_j = 1\) to turn household profit income into aggregate profits \(p\cdot\sum_j y^j\). Walras' law holds at any price vector, not only at equilibrium, which is why it cannot rely on feasibility.
3. If \((p,\bar x,\bar y)\) is a CE, which of these is also a CE?
  • \((p+\mathbf{1},\bar x,\bar y)\), adding one to every price
  • \((p,\lambda\bar x,\lambda\bar y)\) for every positive scalar λ
  • \((-p,\bar x,\bar y)\), flipping the sign of every price
  • \((\lambda p,\bar x,\bar y)\) for every positive scalar λ
Scaling all prices by \(\lambda>0\) leaves every budget set and every profit-maximization problem unchanged (profits scale by λ, but so does everything else). Adding a constant changes relative prices. Flipping the sign turns profit maximization into minimization.
4. In the Edgeworth box at a price where good 1 is in excess demand, what is true of good 2?
  • It is also in excess demand at that same price
  • It is in excess supply, so that p·z equals zero
  • Its market clears, because only one can fail
  • Nothing can be said without the utility weights
Walras' law says \(p z_1 + z_2 = 0\). With \(p>0\), \(z_1>0\) forces \(z_2<0\). Drag the endowment in the figure and watch the readout.

7. Exercises

Alvarez's Midterm 1 opens with true/false statements worth about half the points; two of the Fall 2025 statements are about this lesson. The longer exercises below are derivations in the exam's format: small steps, each worth a few points, with general parameters rather than numbers.

True or false? Justify. Past exam Exam-inspired

For each statement, answer True or False and justify in at most four lines.

  1. Assume all agents have strictly concave, strictly increasing, differentiable utility functions satisfying Inada conditions, in a pure endowment economy. In a competitive equilibrium, the price of each commodity is proportional to a weighted average across agents of the marginal utility of that commodity, with the same weights for every commodity. Fall 2025 MT1 I.4
    Answer

    True. Inada conditions make every optimum interior, so each FOC holds with equality: \(u^i_\ell(\bar x^i)=\mu^ip_\ell\), where \(\mu^i>0\) is \(i\)'s budget multiplier. Hence \(p_\ell=\frac1{\mu^i}u^i_\ell\) for every \(i\), and averaging, \(p_\ell=\frac1I\sum_i\frac{1}{\mu^i}u^i_\ell\). The weight \(1/\mu^i\) is agent-specific but the same for all goods, because each agent has one budget constraint. (Exercise 2.5.)

  2. Consider a pure endowment economy in which every agent is endowed with \(e^i=\bar e/I\), an equal share of the aggregate endowment. The competitive-equilibrium allocation is envy-free: no agent prefers another agent's bundle to her own. Fall 2025 MT1 I.6
    Answer

    True. All agents face the same budget set \(\{x: p\cdot x\le p\cdot\bar e/I\}\), and every equilibrium bundle \(\bar x^j\) is in it. If \(u^i(\bar x^j)>u^i(\bar x^i)\), agent \(i\) could have afforded \(\bar x^j\), contradicting optimality of \(\bar x^i\).

  3. The result in statement 2 requires all agents to have identical preferences. exam-inspired (review-note trap)
    Answer

    False. The revealed-preference argument uses only that budget sets are identical. Each agent compares bundles with her own utility function; preferences can be arbitrary.

  4. Walras' law, \(p\cdot z(p)=0\), holds only at equilibrium prices. exam-inspired
    Answer

    False. It holds at every price vector at which budgets bind: sum the binding budgets and use \(\sum_i\theta^i_j=1\). That is why it can be used to drop one market-clearing condition when searching for equilibrium prices.

  5. If preferences satisfy local non-satiation, every household's budget constraint binds at its optimum. exam-inspired
    Answer

    True. If \(p\cdot\bar x\lt M\), the budget set contains a ball around \(\bar x\) (intersected with \(X\)). LNS gives a strictly better \(\hat x\) in that ball, and it is affordable: contradiction.

  6. With binding budgets, if \(m-1\) of the \(m\) markets clear, the remaining market also clears. exam-inspired
    Answer

    False in general. Walras' law then gives \(p_mz_m=0\), which forces \(z_m=0\) only if \(p_m\neq0\). A free good (\(p_m=0\)) can be in excess supply in equilibrium. The statement is true when \(p_m>0\).

  7. Doubling every price doubles each firm's profit, so households' equilibrium consumption must change. exam-inspired
    Answer

    False. Profits double, but so do the values of all bundles and endowments. Each budget set \(\{x: 2p\cdot x\le 2p\cdot e^i+\sum_j\theta^i_j2\pi^j\}\) is unchanged, as is each firm's argmax. Only relative prices matter.

Exercise 2.1 Slides p.11 (what price ratios mean)

For each commodity space from Lesson 1, interpret a ratio of two prices as a familiar economic object:

  1. \(m=2\): consumption and leisure.
  2. \(L=\mathbb{R}^{2T}\): one consumption good in each of \(T\) periods (look at \(p_{t}/p_{t+1}\)).
  3. \(L=\mathbb{R}^k\): one good in each of \(k\) states of nature.
  4. \(m = k\times\#\text{locations}\): goods differentiated by where they are delivered.
Show solution

(a) \(p_{\text{leisure}}/p_{c}\) is the real wage: how much consumption one hour of leisure costs. (b) \(p_t/p_{t+1} = 1+r_t\) is the gross real interest rate between \(t\) and \(t+1\). (c) \(p_s/\sum_{s'}p_{s'}\) is the price of an Arrow security paying one unit in state \(s\), relative to a riskless bond. Ratios \(p_s/p_{s'}\) combine probabilities and marginal-utility weights. (d) The ratio of the price of the export bundle to the import bundle is the terms of trade; for the same good at two locations it reflects transport cost.

Exercise 2.2 Exam-inspired (the two-good box, solved in general)

Two consumers, two goods. \(u^A = a\log x_1 + (1-a)\log x_2\) with \(e^A=(1,0)\), and \(u^B = b\log x_1+(1-b)\log x_2\) with \(e^B=(0,1)\), where \(a,b\in(0,1)\). Normalize \(p_2=1\) and write \(p\equiv p_1\).

  1. Write each consumer's wealth and demand for good 1 as functions of \(p\). (10 pts)
  2. Clear the market for good 1 and solve for \(p\). Your answer is one expression in \(a\) and \(b\). (10 pts)
  3. Show that the equilibrium allocation is \(\bar x^A=(a,b)\) and \(\bar x^B=(1-a,1-b)\). (10 pts)
  4. How does \(p\) change with \(a\) and with \(b\)? Give a one-line intuition for each. (10 pts)
  5. Check the good-2 market directly, without Walras' law. (5 pts)
Hint

Cobb–Douglas spends a constant share of wealth on each good. A's wealth is \(p\), B's is \(1\).

Show solution

(a) \(m^A=p\), \(m^B=1\). \(x_1^A=a\,m^A/p=a\) and \(x_1^B=b/p\).
(b) \(a+b/p=1\), so \(p=\dfrac{b}{1-a}\).
(c) \(x_2^A=(1-a)m^A=(1-a)\frac{b}{1-a}=b\); \(x_1^B=b/p=1-a\); \(x_2^B=(1-b)m^B=1-b\).
(d) \(p\) rises with \(b\): B, who owns good 2, wants more good 1 and bids its price up. \(p\) rises with \(a\): A, the owner of good 1, wants to keep more of it, so less is supplied to B.
(e) \(x_2^A+x_2^B=b+(1-b)=1\) ✓.

Later lessons use the special case \(a=\tfrac13\), \(b=\tfrac12\): \(p=(\tfrac34,1)\), \(\bar x^A=(\tfrac13,\tfrac12)\), \(\bar x^B=(\tfrac23,\tfrac12)\).

Exercise 2.3 Exam-inspired (Robinson Crusoe with a firm)

One household with endowment \(e=(0,1)\) (no consumption good, one unit of time) and utility \(u(c,\ell)=\log c+b\log\ell\), \(b>0\). One firm with technology \(Y=\{(c,-n): 0\le c\le An^\gamma,\ n\ge0\}\), \(A>0\), \(\gamma\in(0,1)\), owned entirely by the household. Normalize the price of consumption to 1 and let \(w\) be the price of time.

  1. Solve the firm's problem. Show that profit is \(\pi=(1-\gamma)Y\), where \(Y\) is output. (10 pts)
  2. Write the household budget in the form \(p\cdot x\le p\cdot e+\theta\pi\), with signs, and give \(c\) and \(\ell\) as functions of full income \(M=w+\pi\). (10 pts)
  3. Clear the goods market and show that \(n=\dfrac{\gamma}{\gamma+b}\). Which market did you not need to clear? (15 pts)
  4. Solve the planner's problem \(\max_n \log(An^\gamma)+b\log(1-n)\) and compare. (5 pts)
  5. Hours do not depend on productivity \(A\). Explain why in one line. (5 pts)
Hint

The household's bundle is \(x=(c,\ell)\) with \(\ell\in[0,1]\). The time market clears when \(\ell+n=1\). The firm's \(y=(An^\gamma,-n)\) uses time as an input. For (c), use \(wn=\gamma Y\) from (a).

Show solution

(a) \(\max_n An^\gamma-wn\). FOC: \(\gamma An^{\gamma-1}=w\), so \(wn=\gamma Y\) and \(\pi=Y-wn=(1-\gamma)Y\).
(b) \(c+w\ell\le w\cdot1+\pi\). Log utility with weights \(1\) and \(b\) spends shares \(\frac1{1+b}\) and \(\frac{b}{1+b}\) of \(M\): \(c=\frac{M}{1+b}\), \(\ell=\frac{bM}{(1+b)w}\).
(c) Goods market: \(c=Y\), so \((1+b)Y=w+(1-\gamma)Y\), i.e. \(w=(b+\gamma)Y\). With \(wn=\gamma Y\): \(n=\frac{\gamma}{\gamma+b}\). The time market then clears by Walras' law: \(\ell=\frac{bc}{w}=\frac{b}{b+\gamma}=1-n\) ✓.
(d) FOC: \(\frac{\gamma}{n}=\frac{b}{1-n}\), so \(n=\frac{\gamma}{\gamma+b}\): the CE allocation equals the planner's, as the welfare theorems predict.
(e) Under log utility, the income effect of higher \(A\) (richer, so more leisure) exactly offsets the substitution effect (a higher wage, so less leisure).

Special case used in Lesson 6: \(A=1\), \(\gamma=\tfrac12\), \(b=1\) gives \(n=\tfrac13\) and \(w=\tfrac32\cdot\tfrac{1}{\sqrt3}=\tfrac{\sqrt3}{2}\).

Exercise 2.4 Proof (when Walras' law fails)

Show that if some household has a slack budget constraint at its optimum, Walras' law can fail, i.e. \(p\cdot z(p) < 0\). Construct a one-line example and say which assumption it violates.

Show solution

Let one household have a bliss point \(x^b\) with \(p\cdot x^b < p\cdot e\), and let every bundle be weakly worse than \(x^b\). For example, \(u(x) = -\|x - x^b\|^2\). It chooses \(x^b\) and leaves money unspent, so \(p\cdot z = p\cdot(x^b - e) < 0\). This violates local non-satiation: at \(x^b\) there is no better bundle nearby. In Lesson 3 we'll see that LNS is exactly what forces budgets to bind.

Exercise 2.5 Past exam: Fall 2025 MT1 I.4, extended (prices are weighted marginal utilities)

Pure exchange, \(I\) agents, \(m\) goods. Each \(u^i\) is strictly concave, strictly increasing, differentiable and satisfies Inada conditions. Let \((p,\bar x)\) be a competitive equilibrium.

  1. Write agent \(i\)'s first-order condition for good \(\ell\). Why does it hold with equality? (10 pts)
  2. Show that \(p_\ell\propto\sum_i\frac{1}{\mu^i}\,u^i_\ell(\bar x^i)\), where \(\mu^i\) is \(i\)'s budget multiplier. (10 pts)
  3. Why must the weight on agent \(i\) be the same for every good? One line. (5 pts)
  4. Let \(u^i=\sum_\ell a^i_\ell\log x_\ell\) with \(\sum_\ell a^i_\ell=1\). Show that \(1/\mu^i=p\cdot e^i\): the weight on each agent is her wealth. (10 pts)
  5. Show that \(\bar x\) satisfies the first-order conditions of the planner's problem \(\max\sum_i\lambda^iu^i(x^i)\) subject to \(\sum_ix^i=\sum_ie^i\), with \(\lambda^i=1/\mu^i\) and the multiplier on good \(\ell\) equal to \(p_\ell\). Which agents get a high welfare weight? (10 pts)
Show solution

(a) \(u^i_\ell(\bar x^i)=\mu^ip_\ell\). Inada conditions rule out corners (\(u^i_\ell\to\infty\) as \(x_\ell\to0\)), so the non-negativity constraints are slack and the Kuhn–Tucker condition holds with equality. \(\mu^i>0\) because \(u^i\) is strictly increasing.
(b) From (a), \(p_\ell=\frac{1}{\mu^i}u^i_\ell\) for each \(i\). Sum over \(i\) and divide by \(I\): \(p_\ell=\frac1I\sum_i\frac1{\mu^i}u^i_\ell\).
(c) Each agent has a single budget constraint, so a single multiplier \(\mu^i\) prices all of her goods.
(d) FOC: \(a^i_\ell/x^i_\ell=\mu^ip_\ell\), so \(p_\ell x^i_\ell=a^i_\ell/\mu^i\). Summing over \(\ell\): \(p\cdot\bar x^i=1/\mu^i\). The budget binds, so \(1/\mu^i=p\cdot e^i\).
(e) Planner's FOC: \(\lambda^iu^i_\ell(x^i)=\gamma_\ell\). Setting \(\lambda^i=1/\mu^i\) and \(\gamma_\ell=p_\ell\) turns it into (a). Agents with a low marginal utility of income, i.e. rich agents, get a high weight. Because the planner's problem is concave, these FOCs are also sufficient; Exercise 4.2 uses this to prove the First Welfare Theorem a second way.

Exercise 2.6 Problem set 2025 P1 Q1 (Walras' law in an OLG economy with a government)

Generation \(t\ge1\) lives two periods; the initial old (generation 0) live only at \(t=1\). A unit mass is born each period. Taxes are \(\tau^t_t\) (when young) and \(\tau^t_{t+1}\) (when old); \(s_t\) is the saving of the young; \(B_t\) is the government's assets (\(B_t<0\) is debt); \(g_t\) is government spending. The constraints are:

$$\text{(1) } s_t+c^t_t=e^t_t-\tau^t_t,\qquad c^t_{t+1}=s_t(1+r_t)+e^t_{t+1}-\tau^t_{t+1},$$ $$\text{(2) } c^0_1=s_0(1+r_0)+e^0_1-\tau^0_1,\qquad \text{(3) } B_t+g_t=(1+r_{t-1})B_{t-1}+\tau^t_t+\tau^{t-1}_t,$$ $$\text{(4) } g_t+c^t_t+c^{t-1}_t=e^t_t+e^{t-1}_t .$$

  1. Add the budget constraint of the young at \(t\) to that of the old at \(t\), and use (4) to eliminate consumption. (10 pts)
  2. Combine your answer with (3) to show \(B_t+s_t=(1+r_{t-1})(B_{t-1}+s_{t-1})\). (10 pts)
  3. Conclude that \(B_0+s_0=0\) implies the asset market clears, \(B_t+s_t=0\), at every date. (5 pts)
  4. In what sense is this "Walras' law"? One line. (5 pts)
Show solution

(a) Young: \(s_t+c^t_t=e^t_t-\tau^t_t\). Old: \(c^{t-1}_t=(1+r_{t-1})s_{t-1}+e^{t-1}_t-\tau^{t-1}_t\). Adding and using (4) to replace \(c^t_t+c^{t-1}_t\) by \(e^t_t+e^{t-1}_t-g_t\): $$s_t+\tau^t_t+\tau^{t-1}_t=(1+r_{t-1})s_{t-1}+g_t .$$ (At \(t=1\) the old constraint is (2).)
(b) Add this to (3): the taxes and \(g_t\) appear on both sides and cancel, leaving \(B_t+s_t=(1+r_{t-1})(B_{t-1}+s_{t-1})\). (Class Note III p.4 says "subtracting"; with the equations as written, you add them.)
(c) Induction: if \(B_{t-1}+s_{t-1}=0\) then \(B_t+s_t=0\); start from \(B_0+s_0=0\).
(d) If all budgets hold and every goods market clears, the one remaining market, for assets, clears automatically, just as \(p\cdot z(p)=0\) lets you drop one market in the static economy. Lesson 14 uses this result.

Key takeaways

💬 Stuck or curious? Ask me (your Claude teacher) anything. Try "why does the firm take prices as given if it's the only firm?" or "walk me through Exercise 2.3 when the technology has a fixed cost."
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